Quick Guide · For Pastors & Ministry Leaders

When Someone Says, "The Word 'Homosexual' Didn't Appear in the Bible Until 1946"

A point-by-point response showing that while the English word "homosexual" is recent, Scripture describes and condemns the homosexual act in its original languages.

Consider

Consider the standard for marriage Jesus articulated without ambiguity in Matthew 19:4-6. He described God's design of a male-female union which is permanent and monogamous. If Jesus affirmed that design for marriage, it follows that any sexual union apart from that falls short of God's will.

Contrast

Contrast the numerous instructions given in the Bible for male-female marriage with the complete absence of instruction for same-sex marriage. If the Bible is God-inspired, and if God knew there would be same-sex unions, surely He would have included instructions for such. Since God didn't mention same-sex marriage, and every biblical reference to homoerotic behavior is negative, then it's impossible to conclude that God condones homosexuality.

Confirm

Confirm the fact that the word "homosexual" never appeared in earlier translations (like the King James Version), as the term has only been in existence since the late 1800s. While several modern translations use the word "homosexual," some do not. For example, the NIV uses the descriptive phrase "men who have sex with men."

Correct

Correct the implication that because the word "homosexual" isn't found in earlier English versions of the Bible, homosexual acts are also not found. In fact, such acts are found and condemned in Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 and Romans 1:26-27. If the homosexual act is condemned, then it doesn't matter whether the term "homosexual" appears.

Compare

Compare biblical references to other sexual sins with biblical references to homosexuality. For example, the words "incest" and "bestiality" are not found in most translations. Yet acts of incest are condemned in Leviticus 18:7-18 and 1 Corinthians 5:1, while acts of bestiality are condemned in Exodus 22:19 and Leviticus 18:23. Those behaviors are inarguably prohibited by description despite not using the specific terms "incest" or "bestiality."

Corroborate

Show the corroboration between Paul's use of the Greek term arsenokoitai (found in 1 Cor. 6:9 and 1 Tim. 1:10) and references to homosexuality in the Septuagint (the Greek translation of the Old Testament, which was widely used when Paul wrote to Corinth and to Timothy). Paul coined the compound word arsenokoite by joining the terms arsēn (male) and koitē (bed or lying), which appear together twice in the Old Testament, in Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13, two verses prohibiting the homosexual act. Therefore, Paul's listeners would have understood arsenokoite as a reference to sexual acts between men. (For more detail on the Greek, see Gagnon book listed below.)

Concur

Concur with the conclusion reached by virtually every New Testament Greek lexicon, which is that the word arsenokoite serves as a noun for men who engage in homosexual acts, making the Greek word arsenokoite akin to the English word "homosexual." This shows that while the English word "homosexual" did not appear in earlier translations, descriptive language referencing the homosexual act does appear in the original language.

Recommended resources

  • The Bible and Homosexual Practice: Texts and Hermeneutics, Robert A. J. Gagnon
  • The Gay Gospel? How Pro-Gay Advocates Misread the Bible, Joe Dallas
  • TRANSformation: A Former Transgender Responds to LGBTQ, Linda A. Seiler, PhD

© ReStory Ministries. This page reproduces the guide's content; the full formatted version is available as a PDF above.

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